Cue Outrage In 3, 2, 1…
I’m short on time, so let’s make this quick.
I came across a post this morning whose author apparently expected atheists to be outraged or indignant at what he had to say. Being an accomodating guy, I decided to be both! Not because of anything particularly offensive or startling in the post, mind you, but because he decided to post this idiotic image:
For the love of God, Jesus, Allah, Buddha, the Pope, Ardi, whoever, could everybody please stop using this image? Even jokingly? Its stupidity actually hurts me. I mean, ‘bits which then turned into dinosaurs’? Argh. Argh.
Oh, I guess the rest of the post was kind of annoying too. It manages to combine the ‘atheists have no way to be moral and consistent at the same time’ canard with the ‘they know God exists, they just suppress it THE BIBLE SAYS SO GUES’ pile of crap – two horrible tastes that taste horrible together.
The author cites “crimes’ committed by the Nazis during WWII as “atrocities.” What, in the atheist’s world, makes these acts “atrocious?” To the Nazis – in their worldview, a decidedly non-theistic one, to be sure – their actions were nothing more than consistent with their inward motivations and desires. How can one atheist tell another atheist that what he or she does is “wrong” or “criminal” or “atrocious?” What makes pedophilia or pederasty or any particular sexual act “deviant” or “criminal” in an atheistic world? Murder? Theft? We could go on ad infinitum. Has every society always deemed these actions “criminal?” No. We can look at Rome and Greece in the past for how they thought of these sexual acts and numerous societies that have seen nothing wrong with murder and so on.
(I like the Wikipedia links to the definitions of ‘pedophilia’ and ‘pederasty’. Thanks, I needed a definition or else I would have been confused.)
The mention of ancient Greece and Rome is interesting (assuming he’s actually talking about the ancient versions and not the modern country/city, in which case it would just confusing). Read almost any ancient Roman or Greek philosopher, and you’ll find some mention of morality. ‘X is wrong’, they’ll say, and then they’ll go on to give some sort of reason for why X is wrong or Y is right. Those reasons are often not ‘because God says so’, which makes sense given the nature of religious belief at the time.
Where exactly did their morality come from, I wonder? Did God inscribe a moral code upon the hearts of everybody who’s ever lived without telling them about it for hundreds of thousands of years? Because I’ve gotta say, if that’s the case he took his damn time. It’s also funny that many, many civilizations managed to exist and flourish without needing the ol’ Good Book around to tell them what’s right and what’s wrong.
To sum up: history shows that morality, moral codes and stable societies built on said codes are all possible without the Bible being present. So…where do we see any evidence that the Bible is uniquely suited to impart moral wisdom? (And before anybody says ‘But those old societies are all immoral!’, take a look at any Christian kingdom, empire or nation prior to, oh, 1900.)